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Shakespeare - Man or Myth

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  • Shakespeare - Man or Myth

    Shakespeare - Man or Myth




    Was the man we know as Shakespeare really the author of
    the "Shakespearean Works"? We know little about the man called
    Shakespeare, Did he really write the plays, or is he just a man that
    got confused within history? (Sobran 44) There is not even a
    correct spelling of this mans name, Some of the spellings include
    Shakspere, Shakespeare, And Shaxpere. Shakespeare, Is it the man, Or
    is it another? (Hayes 1D)


    Shakespeare is both fact and fiction, he was no concern until
    nearly two hundred years after he perished, and there is still no
    definite or probably will there ever be a conclusion to this
    mystery. (Sobran 44) There is another man that can be attributed with
    the works of "Shakespeare", His name is Edward DeVere, the 17th Earl
    of Oxford. (Bethell 47)


    The man known as Shakespeare does not fit perfectly into the
    necessary criteria to determine the author of these works. Thomas
    Looney invented a series of criteria that had to be filled, in order
    to be a possible candidate for the authorship of the Shakespearean
    works. To have all the knowledge that is portrayed in the works, the
    author must have accomplished many things. These including a superior
    education, from what we know of "Shakespeare", this was not a
    possibility.(Bethell 46) We do not even know if Shakespeare has ever
    written anything in his life, Nor do we know that he was paid for
    writing these works. The man Shakespeare does not even make a claim
    that he is the author.(Bethell 50) He may not have been able to write
    the simplest thing of all, His own name.(Hayes 1D)

    Its not how little we know about Shakespeare that causes
    confusion and difficulty, Its the things that we do know about this
    man that cause the confusion and difficulty. We know Shakespears
    father, a glover, could not write. When he signed documents, he simply
    made an "X", This is why it is beleived that Shakespeare could not
    write also, Because he probably did not attend school therefore his
    education was passed down from his father. (Bethell 48)


    We do know much more about the man Edward DeVere. We know that
    because deVere was a nobleman, he could not have his name written upon
    his writings because he would be considered of a lower class. The
    plays contain a sense of hate towards some of the noblemen of that
    time period, which also point the authorship towards DeVere. (Hayes
    1D) When DeVere was a young man, he spent a lot of time in Italy and
    Europe, This could explain the great detail used in the Shakespearean
    plays of Venice, and other European locations.(Sobran 45) The sonnets
    have never been able to fit into Shakespears life, On the other hand
    they fit into DeVere's life well. (Sobran 45)


    There are facts that lean both ways in this age old mystery of
    authorship, Though the Strafordian man does not fit into the story
    very well, He may have some advantages that the Oxfordian man may not.
    DeVere on the other hand, has mostly every fact pointing towards him
    as the valid author for the "Shakespearean" works, From his education,
    to his experiences, to his travel. The Oxfordian seems to come out on
    top. Shakespeare: Stratforidan, or DeVere?
    Never stop learning
    because life never stop Teaching
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